A question????

I have a question....I know it may just be my weird thinking when it comes to Scripture.
But I have been reading in I Corinth. Then yesterday I read I Corinth 15 and it was talking alot about Christ being raised from the grave....and comparisons to the Dead in Christ rising from the dead. And how if the dead couldn't be raised then then Christ wasn't raised from the dead. Or something like that. (it was a bit of confusing reading to me)

11Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.
12Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?
13But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:
14And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
15Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
16For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
17And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
18Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished.

Anyhow it created a thought and question in my mind. Do you think God allowed for the dead to be raised (Lazerus, Jirus Daughter) So that they could better believe that Jesus had been raised from the dead? Because many believed what they had heard from Mary. Because they had seen or heard of the different miracles of the resurrection of the dead in connection with Jesus. So do you think because of that, it made it easier to believe the resurrection of Jesus? And that God may have even planned it that way?

May be a little hard to follow..but it was a question I had. Would love some input.